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The belief of the trinity was one of the things John warned about that the Apostasy would creep in after his death . Until the later part of the third century, Jesus was not widely considered God.
God's son,Jesus Christ,is who he says he is. In Daniel look at how he approaches the Almighty and is given rulership. Who gives it? Does he give it to himself?
When Satan tested Jesus he said he had been granted authority to give Jesus all the Kingdoms of the earth. Why would he tell Jesus it had been granted to him if Jesus had been doing the granting? It was a test,and thanks to Jesus, and his Father, Jesus passed it. don-ohio :)^)
 
I'm not saying it......the Greek scriptures say it. It was added later most famously at I John 5:7. These were added in Latin manuscripts out of Africa and found their way into 2 late GREEK codices.
A reading of I John 5:7 in the older manuscripts has no `Father,word,and Holy Ghost' but says `spirit ,water,and the blood.'
What better way for Satan to confound true worship of God than to insult the Son of God with equality to his Father.
I've already pointed out that John I: I in KJ and some others incorrectly calls the Greek `theos' God as in God Almighty,but should read ``a god',which Jesus truthfully is a god,second only to his Father.
The trinity doctrine is only part of the apostasy John warned about. don-ohio :)^)
 
once again, skirted around answering a question...

allow me to rephrase the question


are you saying that YOU do not believe in the Trinity? (I honestly don't care what said where on this, just looking for clarification)
 
You mean you can't TELL I don't believe in the trinity? C'mon Loud...................... don-ohio :)^)
 
Proverbs 22:4 `The result of HUMILITY and the fear of Yahweh are glory and riches and life.' don-ohio :)^)
 
You mean you can't TELL I don't believe in the trinity? C'mon Loud...................... don-ohio :)^)

I can assume all day, but when talking about what somebody else is thinking/belives, its best to be clear and certain.
 
Loud,

Don has been saying from the beginning that he doesn't believe in a Triune Godhead. It's in black and white in several posts.

Quote from don-ohio:

"The belief of the trinity was one of the things John warned about that the Apostasy would creep in after his death . Until the later part of the third century, Jesus was not widely considered God.
God's son,Jesus Christ,is who he says he is. In Daniel look at how he approaches the Almighty and is given rulership. Who gives it? Does he give it to himself?
When Satan tested Jesus he said he had been granted authority to give Jesus all the Kingdoms of the earth. Why would he tell Jesus it had been granted to him if Jesus had been doing the granting? It was a test,and thanks to Jesus, and his Father, Jesus passed it. don-ohio."

Don... Jesus was very specific, (and careful), in how He responded to satan. This is my own thought on things,,, but I don't think satan knew for sure whether Jesus was the Messiah or not. Thus the reason for the temptations. Satan was trying to "call Jesus's bluff"... and Jesus was very careful not to allude to anything. I'm sure satan had been watching all of human history for eons,,, but didn't know God's how, when, or where. Since the beginning of human history,,, satan had been haunted by what God said in Genesis 3:15...

15I will put enmity between you and the woman,
and between your offspring and her offspring;
he shall bruise your head,
and you shall bruise his heel.”

Of course,,, everything I said above will be wrong again... especially if you believe Jesus and satan were brothers.

Seriously Don,,, I want you to list the Scriptures, (chapter and verse), where it warnes about the apostacy of the Trinity!

Also... my modern translation of the Bible uses the phrase "the Spirit, the water, and the blood in 1st John 5:7-8 ,,, and this passage has nothing to do with the Trinity in translation.

Once again... you are taking text out of context,,, to try and disprove something to others,,, that you don't believe in.

1st John 5:7 AND 8 (NLT)
7So we have these three witnesses (footnote c) — 8the Spirit, the water, and the blood—and all three agree.

(footnote C) c 5:7 A few very late manuscripts add in heaven—the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And we have three witnesses on earth.

Found here: http://biblehub.com/nlt/1_john/5.htm

Now Don,,, the footnote does NOT say MOST manuscripts... but "A few"

However... this part of 1st John is talking about the proof that Jesus is the Messiah,,, and is not about the Trinity at all! Try it in context with the previous verses.

1st John 5: 6-12

6And Jesus Christ was revealed as God’s Son by his baptism in water and by shedding his blood on the crossb—not by water only, but by water and blood. And the Spirit, who is truth, confirms it with his testimony. 7So we have these three witnessesc— 8the Spirit, the water, and the blood—and all three agree. 9Since we believe human testimony, surely we can believe the greater testimony that comes from God. And God has testified about his Son. 10All who believe in the Son of God know in their hearts that this testimony is true. Those who don’t believe this are actually calling God a liar because they don’t believe what God has testified about his Son.

However... once again,,, you will not directly answer... but just say "No",,, and then divert back to the issue about the wording, "God's Son". As mentioned by others,,, the word "Son" is not necessairly a term defining "offspring"... and you are hung up on the word "Son".
11And this is what God has testified: He has given us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. 12Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have God’s Son does not have life.
 
THe below is copied and pasted from here:

http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Son-of-God.html

Jesus Son of God
Question: "What does it mean that Jesus is the Son of God?"

Answer: Jesus is not God’s Son in the sense of a human father and a son. God did not get married and have a son. God did not mate with Mary and, together with her, produce a son. Jesus is God’s Son in the sense that He is God made manifest in human form (John 1:1, 14). Jesus is God's Son in that He was conceived in Mary by the Holy Spirit. Luke 1:35 declares, “The angel answered, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.’”

During His trial before the Jewish leaders, the High Priest demanded of Jesus, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God” (Matthew 26:63). “’Yes, it is as you say,’ Jesus replied. ‘But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven’” (Matthew 26:64). The Jewish leaders responded by accusing Jesus of blasphemy (Matthew 26:65-66). Later, before Pontius Pilate, “The Jews insisted, ‘We have a law, and according to that law He must die, because He claimed to be the Son of God’” (John 19:7). Why would His claiming to be the Son of God be considered blasphemy and be worthy of a death sentence? The Jewish leaders understood exactly what Jesus meant by the phrase “Son of God.” To be the Son of God is to be of the same nature as God. The Son of God is “of God.” The claim to be of the same nature as God—to in fact be God—was blasphemy to the Jewish leaders; therefore, they demanded Jesus’ death, in keeping with Leviticus 24:15. Hebrews 1:3 expresses this very clearly, “The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of His being.”

Another example can be found in John 17:12 where Judas is described as the “son of perdition.” John 6:71 tells us that Judas was the son of Simon. What does John 17:12 mean by describing Judas as the “son of perdition”? The word perdition means “destruction, ruin, waste.” Judas was not the literal son of “ruin, destruction, and waste,” but those things were the identity of Judas' life. Judas was a manifestation of perdition. In this same way, Jesus is the Son of God. The Son of God is God. Jesus is God made manifest (John 1:1, 14).
 
Above... I said the following:

"Jesus was very specific, (and careful), in how He responded to satan. This is my own thought on things,,, but I don't think satan knew for sure whether Jesus was the Messiah or not. Thus the reason for the temptations. Satan was trying to "call Jesus's bluff"... and Jesus was very careful not to allude to anything. I'm sure satan had been watching all of human history for eons,,, but didn't know God's how, when, or where. Since the beginning of human history,,, satan had been haunted by what God said in Genesis 3:15..."

Jesus didn't confirm anything to satan... because Jesus din't want satan interfering with His plan. We as humans,,, needed to be the ones who put Jesus to death. We had to be the ones to shed His blood,,, otherwise we would have never understood the full story of God's plan. If satan had known for sure that Christ was the Messiah,,, then satan would have done his best to interfere with God's plan. satan had no power in tempting Jesus,,, just as none of the other demons that were cast out of people by Jesus... had any power to resist.
 
I can't believe you think Satan was ignorant that he was God's son. Who ELSE did he approach and say it was granted him to offer ALL THE KINGDOMS of the world?
Satan waited until Jesus was in a weaker state,though still a perfect man like Adam. Then he made his three offers to Jesus.
If Jesus had succumbed,like Adam, it would have been a great achievement for Satan and a blow to the bruising of the serpent's head.
don-ohio :)^)
 
Don you're using The New World translation aren't you?
 
You caught that huh LS4??? Why do you think in past posts I mentioned a translation of the Bible where John 1:1 says.... "and the word was A god". Also my mention of a faith that believes that Jesus was Michael the Archangel incarnate.

Don,

satan is a mere fallen angel compared to God/Jesus. satan is NOT Omnipotent and all knowing. satan could NOT forsee time,,, or how things would play out for our salvation. In your last post... you call Adam a perfect man,,, and the say that he succumbed. THAT STATEMENT RIGHT THERE IS A CONTRADICTION!!! Jesus never would have succumbed to the devil,,, because jesus was around when 1/3 of the angels rebelled against God. Jesus was very familiar with satan,,, but NOT because they were brothers... because they never were. Jesus has always been higher than satan... but as the Scriptures say:

Hebrews 2:1-9 (NLT... with emphasis on verse 9)

A Warning against Drifting Away

1So we must listen very carefully to the truth we have heard, or we may drift away from it. 2For the message God delivered through angels has always stood firm, and every violation of the law and every act of disobedience was punished. 3So what makes us think we can escape if we ignore this great salvation that was first announced by the Lord Jesus himself and then delivered to us by those who heard him speak? 4And God confirmed the message by giving signs and wonders and various miracles and gifts of the Holy Spirit whenever he chose.

Jesus, the Man

5And furthermore, it is not angels who will control the future world we are talking about. 6For in one place the Scriptures say,

“What are mere mortals that you should think about them,

or a son of mana that you should care for him?

7Yet you made them only a little lower than the angels

and crowned them with glory and honor.b

8You gave them authority over all things.”c

Now when it says “all things,” it means nothing is left out. But we have not yet seen all things put under their authority. 9What we do see is Jesus, who was given a position “a little lower than the angels”; and because he suffered death for us, he is now “crowned with glory and honor.” Yes, by God’s grace, Jesus tasted death for everyone.
 
Just noticed this too:

Quote from don-ohio:

"...... If Jesus had succumbed,like Adam, it would have been a great achievement for Satan and a blow to the bruising of the serpent's head. don-ohio"

Don, you said that backwards, (another contradiction or a mistype?)

It was a blow to the serpents head, (I.E. satan),,, because Jesus didn't succumb to temptation. Jesus was struck on the heel by satan,,, because of His death on the cross... however Jesus crushed satans head,,, by rising from the dead and saving us from our sins.

AGAIN... Genesis 3:15...

15I will put enmity between you and the woman,
and between your offspring and her offspring;
he shall bruise your head,
and you shall bruise his heel.”

The offspring of the woman, Mary (I.E.Jesus) will bruise, (crush) satans head.... and satan will bruise Jesus's heel"

So again... did you just contradict yourself twice in post #265 ???
 
2 Corinthians 4:4New Living Translation (NLT) CAPS added for emphasis

4 satan, WHO IS THE GOD OF THIS WORLD, has blinded the minds of those who don’t believe. They are unable to see the glorious light of the Good News. They don’t understand this message about the glory of Christ, who is the exact likeness of God.

John 16:33

33I have told you all this so that you may have peace in me. Here on earth you will have many trials and sorrows. But take heart, because I have overcome the world.”

John 14:30 (NLT) Jesus speaking - I added the CAPS for emphasis

30“I don’t have much more time to talk to you, because the ruler of this world approaches. HE HAS NO POWER OVER ME,

John 12:28-33 (NLT) Jesus speaking - once again I added CAPS for emphasis

28Father, bring glory to your name.”

Then a voice spoke from heaven, saying, “I have already brought glory to my name, and I will do so again.” 29When the crowd heard the voice, some thought it was thunder, while others declared an angel had spoken to him.

30Then Jesus told them, “The voice was for your benefit, not mine. 31The time for judging this world has come, WHEN sATAN, THE RULER OF THIS WORLD, WILL BE CAST OUT. 32And when I am lifted up from the earth, I will draw everyone to myself.” 33He said this to indicate how he was going to die.
 
Oh... by the way...

I never said satan was ignarant of who Jesus was. I said, (speculatively), that satan wasn't sure,,, thus the reason for tempting Jesus to see if He actually was the Messiah.

So don't twist what I say. Either that,,, or read more carefully what I say.

Matthew 4:5-6 CAPS added for emphasis

5Then the devil took him to the holy city, Jerusalem, to the highest point of the Temple, 6and said, “IF you are the Son of God, jump off! For the Scriptures say,

‘He will order his angels to protect you.

And they will hold you up with their hands

so you won’t even hurt your foot on a stone.’c”



Jesus knew no harm would come to him if He jumped,,, but instead He just quoted Scripture to satan.
 
Quote from don-ohio in post #255:

"....... I've already pointed out that John I: I in KJ and some others incorrectly calls the Greek `theos' God as in God Almighty,but should read ``a god',which Jesus truthfully is a god,second only to his Father. ...."

So there you go LS4. Yes,,, Don is using the NWT.... and it is the ONLY version that calls Jesus "a god" in John 1:1
 
So the NWT is the only Translation that gets it right? I don't think so. I'll look into that. I'm looking at the Greek interlinear,which shows theos. Can you see the difference? If you can, then STOP using John I :1 to mislead. don-ohio :)^)
 
So the NWT is the only Translation that gets it right?

Nope... It's an apostate translation...

Hmmmmm (from the Greek Interlinear) .....

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
In unto-a-firsting it-was the-one a-Forthee, and the-one a-Forthee it-was toward to-the-one to-a-Deity, and a-Deity it-was the-one a-Forthee.

1:1 ΕΝ "In" ΑΡΧΗ "unto-a-firsting" ἦν "it-was" ὁ "the-one" λόγος, "a-Forthee," καὶ "and" ὁ "the-one" λόγος "a-Forthee" ἦν "it-was" πρὸς "toward" τὸν "to-the-one" θεόν, "to-a-Deity," καὶ "and" θεὸς "a-Deity" ἦν "it-was" ὁ "the-one" λόγος. "a-Forthee."

Looks to me that the two are one! You also need to remember word order is meaningless in Greek. "I ate a well done steak" and "I ate a steak done well" have two completely meanings in English. In Greek you need the context.

So... If you're not one of the 144,000 what hope is there?
 
I know I would trust a bible that is only about half a century old... :shifty:
 
Quote from Loud:

"I know I would trust a bible that is only about half a century old... "

And written just for one specific denomination... if you can call it that.


LS4... I'm humbled,,, and impressed that you know Greek. Unfortunately "it's all greek to me". :-D I thought about going to seminary school back after the wife left. Even attended an "open hiouse" at a local seminary to get a feel for the program. Unfortunately,,, $40 grand wasn't available to me at the time. However... I have seen how God has used me in other ways.

Quote by LS4:

"Looks to me that the two are one! You also need to remember word order is meaningless in Greek. "I ate a well done steak" and "I ate a steak done well" have two completely meanings in English. In Greek you need the context."

Nowadays... you need the context in English too. Maybe a repeat,,, but I heard someone mention a good technique when studying the Bible. It's called 20/20 vision. If one comes to a paert of the text in the Bible that isn't completely clear... then read 20 verses before,,, and 20 verses after the text you are trying to understand. Me being anal,,, I tend to read a whole chapter before,,, and a whole chapter after.
 
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